QBase: Anaesthesia: 3. E Hammond, Andrew McIndoe. Greenwich Medical Media, £, pp ISBN 1 Rating: (books , CDs 55). QBase Anaesthesia by, May 30, , Greenwich Medical Media edition, Paperback in English. QBase Anaesthesia_ Volume 3, MCQs in Medicine for the FRCA (v. 3).pdf . Anesthesia--Examinations, questions, etc. QBase Anaesthesia on CD- ROM.
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have these limitations have been static. In the UK, financial awards are of course much lower than in the US, limited by judicial standards, and solicitors fees are. Cambridge Core - Anesthesia, Intensive Care, Pain Management - QBase Anaesthesia - by Colin Pinnock. QBase Anaesthesia. QBase . PDF; Export citation. PDF | On Mar 1, , Goetz Bosse and others published Fundamentals of Anaesthesia and QBase Anesthesia 6.
Wolters Kluwer Health may email you for journal alerts and information, but is committed to maintaining your privacy and will not share your personal information without your express consent. Decreased vocal resonance E. Dysphagia C. Occurs late in diastole C. The diagnosis is made when patients present with reflux Question Constipation is a feature of A.
Ellison, Norig. Qbase Anaesthesia, Vol. New York: Cambridge University Press, ISBN X. The Royal College of Anaesthetists, the professional body responsible for the specialty of anesthesia throughout the United Kingdom, includes a question multiple choice test as part of its final fellowship examination.
This book, intended as a study guide in preparation for the FRCA Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists , is designed for the physician preparing for this test. The book includes well-written questions with explanations on a broad range of topics in anesthesia. The book includes five tests, each with 60 questions. Each question is structured as a five-part true-and-false, with penalties for answering questions incorrectly. An answer key with explanations then follows at the end of each test.
The CD-ROM includes the same questions as the book, with an additional option to help a test taker determine an optimal selection strategy. Most other board review books like those by Hall and Chu have been designed with the frequently recurring topics on the American boards in mind, making them high-yield reviews for American students of anesthesia. This book has been designed with a similar purpose, but for the British board exams.
The topics do generally mirror those of the American test, with normal physiology, pathophysiology, machines, cardiology, obstetrics, pain, regional, physics, and pharmacology all well represented. Pediatrics is somewhat underemphasized on these tests compared with the American test. This tends to make the questions difficult to follow at best, and at worst virtually useless for preparation for American boards.
For example, the book commonly refers to named devices and techniques that are seldom mentioned in literature familiar to American residents such as the Benedict Roth spirometer or the Bryce-Smith tube. It features questions on drugs that have fallen out of favor in the United States, such as enflurane, and on tests and algorithms that are rarely used in the Unite States, such as the Goldman cardiac risk index, even though the index was developed in America.
This is not to say the book is badly written; on the contrary, it does have value as a clinical review for an anesthesia practitioner. The questions cover a broad variety of topics and each question comes with a thorough explanation of the reasoning behind the answers.
However, this reviewer cannot recommend this book for written board preparation for a student taking the American anesthesia boards. You may be trying to access this site from a secured browser on the server. Please enable scripts and reload this page. Journal Logo. Login No user account? Register for free. Remember me on this computer.
Forgot Password? What's your profession? What's your speciality? Down's syndrome is associated with endomyocardial cushion defects Question 22 Recognised causes of a pericardial effusion include A. Cyanosis B. Length of the diastolic murmur C. Irregular cannon waves suggest complete heart block E. Large 'a' wave in the JVP trace C.
Raised systolic blood pressure D. Dyspnoea B. Ventricular tachycardia C. A permanent pacemaker should always be used in asymptomatic broad complex complete heart block C. Diphtheria can produce a narrow complex complete heart block B. Reversed limb lead E. Cyanosis E. Patients with second degree block are usually asymptomatic Question 27 The following suggest predominant incompetence in mixed mitral valve disease A.
A fall in BP on exercise suggests severe coronary artery disease D. Nodal rhythm D. Atrial fibrillation E. Gallop rhythm Question 29 In a patient with ischaemic heart disease A. Dyspnoea following prolonged angina suggests severe left ventricular disease B.
Dextrocardia B. Presence of a third heart sound D. Tachycardia induced by pacing is more likely to produce pain than exercise E. Left parasternal heave Question 28 The following signs are characteristic of a pulmonary embolus PE A. Loud first heart sound C. Decreasing PR interval suggests Wenckebach's phenomenon D.
An atrial sound may be audible only during an attack of angina C. Atypical chest pains E.
Terfenadine C. Astemizole D. Infective endocarditis C. Supraventricular ectopics D. Indolent infection late after cardiac surgery is often due to infection with Staphylococcus aureus D. Digoxin-like substances secreted by the placenta may interfere with digoxin assays during pregnancy E. Is not known to be teratogenic D. Hypermagnesaemia E. May be used for the control of fetal arrhythmias in pregnancy C.
Enterococci are highly sensitive to penicillins B. Anticoagulation is indicated to reduce the risk of emboli when large vegetations are present E. Pericarditis Question 33 Digoxin A. Streptococcus bovis is frequently associated with lesions in the bowel C. Has been proven to prolong survival in patients with chronic heart failure B.
Bradycardia Question 32 Recognised complications of mitral valve prolapse include A. Erythromycin therapy B. Mycotic aneurysms may rupture after complete eradication of infection Question 31 The prolonged repolarisation syndrome may be associated with the following A.
Exercise-induced ventricular arrhythmias B. Tricuspid regurgitation D. Sotalol E. Hypokalaemia C. Left axis deviation of the ECG C. Hypertension B. Hyperkalaemia E. Hypercalcaemia B. Chlorpromazine Question 35 The following factors predispose to the development of dissecting aortic aneurysm A.
Hypokalaemia B. Aminophylline D. Hypoxia B. Hypothyroidism E. Hypomagnesaemia Question 38 Findings in a patient with emphysema and cor pulmonale include A. Pregnancy Question 36 Metabolic predispositions to digoxin toxicity include A.
Marfan's syndrome C. Hypercholesterolaemia D. Hypocalaemia D. Hypermagnesaemia C. Large 'a' wave in the JVP E. Hypocalcaemia D.
Hypothermia B. Bicuspid aortic valve E. Has no active metabolites Question 43 The first heart sound A. Is used in the treatment of angina E. Occurs earlier in diastole the more severe the degree of stenosis Question 40 Nicorandil A. Varies in position with respiration E. Is a potassium channel inhibitor B. Is safe in patients taking amiloride E. May be associated with thiamine deficiency C. Is an Angiotensin II receptor antagonist B.
Is absolutely contraindicated in the presence of beta-blockers D. Produces reduced renin activity C. Is a recognised cause of sudden death B. Has a recognised association with ACE gene polymorphism E. Is loud in patients with thyrotoxicosis E. Is a low pitched sound best heard with the bell of the stethoscope B.
Reduces preload and afterload C. Headaches may occur when treatment is started Question 41 Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy A. Is due to the closur of the mitral tricuspid valves C. Is commonly associated with mitral regurgitation D. Occurs at a variable distance from the second heart sound C. Represents the sudden opening of the mitral valve D. Is usually split D. Is best heard at the left sternal edge B. Causes a dry cough similar to captopril D. Two perpendicular axes are required to represent the spatial vector D.
Steep y descent is associated with tricuspid regurgitation E. Is twice as common in men as in women B.
Is shortened in tricyclic poisoning E. Is associated with a pansystolic murmur D. Occurs in mitral incompetence Question 46 Coarctation of the aorta A. At the body surface. Steep x descent is associated with constrictive pericarditis D. May be associated with webbing of the neck C. Is caused by ventricular myocardial repolarisation B. Is a normal finding in children and young adults C. It represents the vector sum of the depolarization potentials of all myocardial cells B. The normal value is usually less than 3 cm of water C.
Will normally contain a Q-wave up to half the height of the R-wave C. Is referred to as the sound of cardiac distress D. May be used to assess rotation of the heart along its longitudinal axis Question 45 The third heart sound A. Is due to rapid ventricular filling B.
It is usually measured from the sternal notch B. The diastolic potential difference is maintained by a high intracellular potassium concentration E. Occurs immediately following mitral and tricuspid valve opening E. Corresponds with the phase ofisovolumetric contraction D.
Nodal bradycardia E. P waves C. It represents ventricular repolarisation B. Wide QRS complex D. Long PR interval C. Long QT interval Question 51 In a patient with a broad complex tachycardia.
May be a normal finding B. Is associated with ventricular septal defects D. Pulmonary stenosis Question 53 Right bundle branch block A. Large patent ductus arteriosus E. It is normally less than 1mV in the standard leads C. Right bundle branch block C. Severe aortic stenosis D. Is associated with atrial septal defects C. Left bundle branch block B. Left axis deviation B.
Digoxin toxicity is associated with increased T wave amplitude D. Results in a QRS duration of at least msec E. Capture beats D.
J waves B. Secundum atrial septal defect C. Is present in right ventricular failure C. Is associated with Torsades de Pointes tachycardia E. Atrial myxoma C. Occurs in pulmonary stenosis Question 57 Mid-diastolic murmurs occur in A.
Ventricular septal defect with normal pulmonary artery pressure D. Is associated with an abnormal pathway between atria and ventricles D. May be physiological B. Rheumatic fever E. Occurs in mitral stenosis D. Isolated aortic regurgitation E. Occurs late in diastole C. May occur in patients on chlorpromazine C. May be associated with congenital deafness B. May be a normal finding in a person over 40 B. Mitral stenosis B. Aortic regurgitation Question 58 The following are likely to cause serious complications during pregnancy A.
May indicate ventricular volume overload E. Is a recognised consequence of hypomagnesaemia Question 56 A fourth heart sound A. Occurs in acute mitral regurgitation D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Occurs in constrictive pericarditis E.
Broad QRS complex D. Occurs late in systole C. May be a normal finding in elderly patients D. Makes the shunt right to left. ACE inhibitors D. Is uncommon in Down's syndrome C. Murmur of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy B.
Murmur of aortic stenosis D. Length of the murmur of mitral valve prolapse C. Short PR interval C. Fourth heart sound Question 60 Mortality in myocardial infarction is reduced by A. Beta-blockers C. Produces a loud diastolic murmur Question 63 A fourth heart sound A. Nifedipine B. When large. Occurs in aortic incompetence B. Murmur of mitral regurgitation E. May be palpated E.
Intravenous magnesium E. Occurring at approximately 1 in live births is the commonest congenital cardiac defect B.
Normal P wave B. Accessory pathway between the atria and ventricles E. Left ventricular failure may be associated with reversed splitting E. Mean frontal QRS axis of 40 C. Only the pericardium is involved E. Coarcation of the aorta may be associated with greater splitting of the sounds in expiration Question 68 The following are normal findings on the ECG A. Cerebral embolism in young adults Question 66 Constrictive pericarditis is associated with A.
Affecting the heart. Peripheral oedema B. A steep 'y' descent on JVP trace E. Right bundle branch block E. Atrial septal defects are associated with a widely split second heart sound C. Tuberculosis Question 67 Concerning the second heart sounds A. Mitral valvulitis leads to a transient diastolic mitral Carey-Coombs murmur Question 65 Complications of mitral valve prolapse include A. Physiological splitting is associated with greater separation of the sounds during expiration B.
PR interval of 0. Ventricular dysrhythmias D. Patients may develop a fleeting polyarthritis affecting the small joints B. Infective endocarditis E.
A raised jugular venous pressure JVP C. Reversed splitting occurs in right bundle branch block D. The causative bacterium is a group B Streptococcus D. Pericarditis B. Chest pain C. First degree heart block Question 72 Coronary artery stents A. Require life-long anticoagulation D. Shortening of the corrected QT interval C.
If no pre-excitation is seen on ECG during sinus rhythm. P-waves just after every QRS complex are diagnostic of ventricular tachycardia C. U waves E. T wave flattening D. Diarrhoea D. In a RBBB pattern tachycardia. Prolongation of the PR interval B. Prolongation of the R-R interval B. Photophobia E. Prolongation of the QT interval C. Preclude the use of nuclear magnetic resonance imaging E. Subaortic stenosis C.
Acute pulmonary embolism E. Dextrocardia Question 77 Regarding vagotonic manoeuvres in the presence of supraventricular arrhythmias A.
Valvular aortic stenosis D. It is important to maintain a normal to high mean arterial pressure following surgical correction D. Rheumatic fever is the most likely cause B. Arrhythmias involving circus movement may convert to sinus rhythm D. Right bundle branch block B. Right ventricular failure may develop E. Ebstein's anomaly C. Pulmonary oedema may develop if the mitral valve orifice area is 1 cm2 D.
There is a tendency to intracranial haemorrhage C. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure reflects left ventricular end diastolic pressure Question 75 Paradoxical splitting of the second heart sound is caused by A. Atrial flutter is a contraindication to valvotomy C. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome D. The constriction is usually proximal to the origin of the left subclavian artery Question 74 In a 65 year old patient with mitral stenosis A.
Right sided carotid sinus massage generally impairs AV nodal conduction B. Renal hypoperfusion activates the renin-angiotensin system resulting in hypertension B. Hypertensive heart disease with LVF E.
Ocular pressure is effective E. Left sided carotid sinus massage generally slows the sinus rate C. Is associated with selenium deficiency E. Divides into the circumflex and marginal arteries D. Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia treated effectively with digoxin E. Supplies the inferior aspect of the left ventricle B.
Ventricular septal defect E. Severe aortic stenosis B. Increase in the QT interval C. Right ventricular heave B. Mid-systolic ejection murmur in the pulmonary area E. Characteristic delta wave during tachydysrhythmias Question 82 The normal right coronary artery A.
Occurring peripartum is associated with a high risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancy C. Atrial septal defect D.
Supplies the right ventricle and part of the septum E. Secondary to alcohol abuse presents predominantly with right heart failure B. Fixed splitting of the first heart sound D. Supplies the AV node C. Short PR interval B. Pulmonary venous plethora on the chest X-ray Question 79 Dilated cardiomyopathy A. Loud second heart sound C.
Is associated with anthracycline therapy D. The c wave coincides with tricuspid valve closure C. Long PR interval Question 85 The following features distinguish an ostium primum from a secundum atrial septal defect A. Right atrial enlargement on chest X-ray D. Raised serum immunoglobulins Question 84 Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is associated with A. Double apical impulse E. Systolic ejection murmur at the upper left sternal border B. The a wave coincides with the fourth heart sound B.
Systolic anterior motion of the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve B. The x descent is slowed in tricuspid stenosis E. Cannon waves are seen in tricuspid incompetence D. Slow rising pulse C. Apical systolic murmur D. Syncope B. Fixed split second heart sound C. Parasternal heave on palpation of the precordium Question 86 The following statements concerning the jugular venous pulse are correct A. Left axis deviation on the ECG E.
Systemic emboli E. Palpable fourth heart sound D. The P wave denotes sino-atrial activity B. The heart is usually otherwise normal D. The radial pulse is usually regular or regularly irregular Question 88 In atrial fibrillation A.
Non-sustained ventricular tachycardia is a marker for sudden death risk D. The femoral pulse is irregularly irregular B. There is usually a Q wave in V6 E.
Patients are usually symptomatic D. The genetic defect is a point mutation at a single locus on chromosome 14 B. Chronic alcohol abuse is a recognised cause E. Digoxin often conserts the rhythm to atrial fibrillation C.
The atrial rate is about Question 89 In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy A. Carotid sinus massage usually slows the AV conduction E. The initial deflection inV1 is negative C. The atrial rate is commonly bpm B. Dual chamber pacing can reduce the outflow tract gradient and improve symptoms C. Atrial repolarization is represented by a biphasic P wave in V1 C. Patients with recurrent VF may require implantation of a cardioverter defibrillator E.
The T wave is negative in aVr D. The ECG shows 'f' waves C. Tricuspid atresia B. Splitting of the second heart sound increases in expiration C. Sudden death is a recognised complication D. Ventricular and supraventricular tachydysrhythmias are equally common D. Digoxin is the treatment of choice C. There is a male preponderance B. The x descent is rapid in cardiac tamponade B. The physiological third heart sound is synchronous with the x descent E. Patent Ductus Arteriosus C.
Antidromic tachycardia is more common than orthodromic Question 96 Cyanosis may be present in A. There is often a history of rheumatic fever B. Eisenmenger's syndrome D. Ostium primum ASD E. The ventricular rate is usually slow if the patient is in AF B. The shunt is left to right D.
If left uncorrected. Ebstein's anomaly may be an associated condition E. Inspection of the normal adult usually reveals a. The accessory pathway always links the right atrium and ventricle Question 93 Regarding the jugular venous pressure A.
Regular cannon waves are seen in nodal tachycardia C. Defects in the cardiac septa are common E. Pulmonary systolic murmur E. Mitral incompetence Question Features of digoxin toxicity include A. Pulmonary stenosis C. Hypokalaemia D. Complete heart block D. T wave flatteningHypothyroidism C. Mid-diastolic murmur D. Xanthopsia B. Tricuspid stenosis B. Right axis deviation C. U wavesHypothermia B. Wide splitting of the second heart sound B. Pulmonary hypertension E. T wave inversion E.
Biphasic P wave in V1Mitral stenosis E. Gynaecomastia C. Is related to the azygous vein E. The trachea starts at the level of C6 and ends at T4 B. A right sided pneumothorax C. A massive left sided empyema E. Collapse of the left lung D.
There are 18 divisions between the trachea and the alveolus E. The left main bronchus passes under the aortic arch and is approximately 5 cm long C. Has one fissure B. Pores of Kohn allow communication between alveoli of adjoining lobules D.
The FRC can be measured by spirometry C. Has two pulmonary veins D. The peak flow rate is a measure of intrinsic airway disease D. Compliance must be measured dynamically E. Peak expiratory flow rate is correlated to age.
Type I pneumocytes secrete surfactant Question The right lung A. Has no Sibson's fascia C. A nodular goitre B. Nail base skin oedema E. Increased nail bed curvature in all directions B. Nail base fluctuation C. Finger pulp swelling D. A pulse rate greater than bpm B. Dullness to percussion E.
Nail base telangiectasia Question Causes of finger clubbing include A. Cyanosis C. Bronchial breathing D. Cystic fibrosis C. Mesothelioma E. Decreased air entry Question Good indicators of life threatening asthma include A. Chronic bronchitis B. A low PaCO2 C. Mediastinal deviation to the opposite side B.
Expiratory polyphonic wheeze Question Tension pneumothorax is characterised by A. Reduced vocal resonance E. Pulsus paradoxus greater than 20 mmHg D. Widespread polyphonic wheeze E.
Inflammatory bowel disease D. Reduced chest wall movement ipsilaterally B. A dull percussion note C. Pneumothorax E. The lungs are structurally normal at birth B. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy D. Ankylosing spondylitis Question Typical findings in right lower lobe collapse include A. Stony dull percussion C. Caseation within the regional lymph nodes E. Fibrosing alveolitis B.
Bronchial breath sounds D. Erythema nodusum C. Older children develop nasal polyps C. A recognised association with influenza viral infection C. Hypothermia E. Decreased vocal resonance E. The vas deferens and epididymis are absent Question Features of primary tuberculosis include A. Polycythaemia D. Multiple lung abscesses which persist as thin walled cysts B. SVC obstruction C. The mode of inheritance is autosomal dominant with poor penetration D. Swinging pyrexia B.
Crepitations Question Typical features of Staphylococcal pneumonia include A. There is generalised endocrine dysfunction E. Close contact with birds D. Decreased chest expansion B. In rheumatoid arthritis D. In sarcoidosis C.
Is diagnosed from typical CXR appearances C. Weight loss B. Can produce chest lesions up to 10mm diameter Question Honeycomb lung occurs A. Acanthosis nigricans E. Is commoner in women E.
Lung cavitation commonly occurs Question In Pickwickian syndrome obstructive sleep apnoea A. Myasthenic syndrome D. In smokers E. The main symptoms are hypersommnolence. Nocturnal positive nasal airway pressure devices is a recognised and effective treatment D. Is a benign form of tuberculosis seen in older people B. May be associated with a negative Mantoux test E. Gynaecomastia Question In Legionnaires' disease A.
May have CXR appearances in common with sarcoidosis D. Hypernatraemia is a recognised finding C. Hypocalcaemia C. The presenting cough is often dry E. After treatment with bleomycin B. In ankylosing spondylitis Question Extrapulmonary manifestations of bronchial carcinoma include A. Lymphopenia is recognised finding D. It rarely occurs before six months of age B. Pulmonary function tests reveal an obstructive pattern D.
By definition must be ventilated Question Asbestosis A. Have a lower mortality if treated early with nitric oxide C. May rarely occur in immunised children E. Typically produces upper lobe fibrosis B. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is rare C. Characteristically produces calcification on the diaphragmatic pleural surface C.
There is multi-system granulomatous disease B. Erythema nodosum is rare E. Standard bicarbonate requires a normal PaCO2 D. Have a high thoracic compliance D.
Bicarbonate values are calculated not measured C. Have a low pulmonary vascular resistance B. Is associated with an increased incidence of mesothelioma Question The following statements about whooping cough are true A. Causes sputum eosinophilia E. Lymphocytosis is characteristic D. A low PaCO2 is a feature of aspirin overdose E. Produces a restrictive lung disease D. Is infective only in the paroxysmal phase C. Subphrenic abscess Question The following are true regarding spontaneous pneumothorax A.
Fibrosing alveolitis C. Pleural effusion B. Stridor Question The following may contribute to the pathology of bronchiectasis A. Bronchial breathing is heard over the affected hemithorax C. Are best treated with humidified oxygen and steroids C.
Pericarditis C. Is 5 times more common in women when not associated with serious lung pathology D. Pleuradesis should be considered for recurrent pneumothoraces E. Thrombocytopenia D. Pulmonary eosinophilia D. Measles D. Achalasia Question Recognised complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include A. Are usually apyrexial B. May have inspiratcory stridor D.
Bronchogenic carcinoma E. Diarrhoea and vomiting E. Leucocytosis B. Breathlessness and pleuritic chest pain are usually present B. Cystic fibrosis B. Usually drool Question Recognised lung complications of rheumatic disease include A. Coarctation C. Usually have a bacterial cause E. Bordetella pertussis E. A diver suffering from the bends requires rapid decompression E. Cervical cancer D. Bronchial cancer C. Alveolar cell carcinoma may be of multicentric origin E.
Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice for adenocarcinomas B. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Pneumocystis carinii B. Tetany C. Painful hands and wrists B. Bladder cancer E.
Polyuria D. Ataxia Question Regarding carcinoma of the lung A.
Altitude sickness may be prevented by breathing oxygen B. Adenocarcinomas are commonly peripheral in the lung parenchyma D. Pre-treatment with acetazolamide is of value in preventing the bends Question The following are recognised non-metastatic presenting features of carcinoma of the lung A.
Cytomegalovirus C. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare E. Cryptococcus Question The following are true A. Drowning is likely to occur more rapidly in sea water than in fresh water C.
Squamous cell tumours metastasise early Question Cigarette smoking is implicated in the causation of A. Thyroid cancer B. Hyperpigmentation E. Exposure to petroleum products increases risk of alveolar cell carcinoma C. Pulmonary involvement is usually seen on transbronchial biopsy even in extra-pulmonary presentations of the disease D.
It produces finger clubbing and fine end inspiratory crepitations in the lung bases Question In patients with sarcoidosis A. Carcinoma of the bronchus is a recognised complication D. Asymptomatic hilar lymphadenopathy is a common presentation C. Septic emboli D. Aspiration pneumonia B. It produces pulmonary nodules and fibrosis C. Farmer's lung D. Heart failure is usually secondary to lung involvement and cor pulmonale B.
A fall in serum ACE levels with corticosteroid treatment correlates with disease response Question The following are associated with pulmonary granulomata A. Asbestos exposure Question Causes of pulmonary cavitation include A. Varicella zoster B. Histoplasmosis C. Chicken pox pneumonia D. Pleural plaques are pre-malignant B. Berylliosis E. Farmers' lung Question The following are associated with calcification on the chest radiograph A.
Invasive aspergillosis C. Sarcoidosis B. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia E. Silicosis E. Mitral stenosis C. Is commonly associated with a positive anti-nuclear antibody E. Raised intracranial pressure E.